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High quality example sentences with "have been to london" in context from reliable sources - Ludwig is the linguistic search engine that helps you to write better in English

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1. "I have been to London." is correct and means that you have visited London in the past but are no longer there now. 2. "I have been in London." is correct if someone asks you "Where have you been?" but "in London" is usually accompanied with an adverb indicating a duration of time. So for instance, "I have been in London for a month now."

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Some examples from the web: SmallcarBIGCITY Reviews I have been to London several times before, but this truly was the best way to see the city.; I have been to London many other times and this time my choice of renting an apartment was a new thing and I am so glad I did because it really made the trip better.; In the past two months, I have been to London, Montreal, New York, Napa, San.

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Many people (quite rightly) want to tick off some of the big boys as soon as they arrive in London: "Hyde Park. Tower Bridge. Piccadilly Circus" says Marina without missing a beat — and who can.

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The Present Perfect is formed with the auxiliary verb "have" + the past participle of the verb. This is usually formed with -ed on the end of the infinitive. For example: play - played, live - lived (There are also many irregular past participles. See this page for a list of the most common ones.)

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A yellow weather warning for London and the south east has been issued by the Met Office as the first snow of 2024 and ice arrives in the UK. People have woken to snow-dusted roofs, icy roads and.

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What has happened is the Mayor of London and his team have got more involved over the weekend. And extra money has been found. Sources have told me it is in the region of £30m.

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have been TO London / IN London? Emil100 Jan 31, 2011 E Emil100 Senior Member Denmark, Danish Jan 31, 2011 #1 Hello, I hope someone could tell me which of the following two expressions is correct gramatically: 1) I have been to London 2) I have been in London Thanks timpeac Senior Member England English (England) Jan 31, 2011 #2 Emil100 said:

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2 I have been to London twice only. This is grammatical and idiomatic but somewhat rare. Normal syntax is either I have only been to London twice or I have been to London only twice. Because the word before is missing, there is no explicit implication that you are in London a third time when speaking or writing this sentence.

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Has / have gone to refers to someone who has gone to a place but has not yet returned. In other words, someone who has gone to Hawaii and is still in Hawaii having a good time. Here are some examples: He's gone to the bank. He should be back soon. Where has Tom gone to? They've gone to the business conference for the week.

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Jan. 7, 2024 Updated 2:52 p.m. ET. The mayor of London on Sunday announced that a planned strike that would have ground the city's underground Tube system to a halt this week had been suspended.

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(a) Have you ever been to London? (b) Have you ever been in London? A friend asked me the difference between the two. Initially I thought (a) was the.

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Since "I have been" is the perfect tense of both "to be" and "to go" it simply depends if "I have been in London" is a reflex of "to go to London" or "to be in London".

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Parts of Europe are experiencing an extreme start to the new year's weather. As some countries struggle with devastating floods, others have been plunged into extreme cold, causing chaos.

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I have been in London for 3 years (as in the title) means that after spending the said time in London you are still there, while the first sentence ( I have been to London) means you have an experience of visiting London (you are not there now). Share